Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

I am married for 3 years. My husband keeps pressing my boobs 40-50 times a day. He never stops though I ask him not to. What I should do to stop it?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Trump always acts like he was forced to be president, that he was chosen by God. Why do we put up with this? This maniac can't focus and get his mind off of being asskissed like an emperor.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There is any scientific evidence that we live in a sphere. Why do others say that we lives in a flat Earth but there is no evidence that they have proven the existence of a flat earth?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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